What the Quran says about the Injeel

This is a arranged forum debate between two individuals.

What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby newseed on Fri Jun 15, 2007 10:25 pm

Below is the opening statement by 'nars'

What the Quran says about the Injeel

Injeel is mentioned 12 times in the Quran. In the English Quran it is translated to Gospel.

And He will teach him [Jesus] the Scripture and wisdom, and the Torah and the Gospel (3.48.)

I taught thee [Jesus] the Scripture and Wisdom and the Torah and the Gospel (5.110)

We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow, and gave him the Gospel (57.27)

And We bestowed on him [Jesus] the Gospel (5.46)

He hath revealed unto thee [Muhammad] the Scripture with truth, confirming that which was before it, even as He revealed the Torah and the Gospel. (3.3)

From these five verses it is clear that the Injeel was taught or revealed to Jesus.

If only the People of the Scripture would believe... If they had observed the Torah and the Gospel (5.65,66)

O People of the Scripture! Ye have naught (of guidance) till ye observe the Torah and the Gospel (5.68.)

From these verses it is clear that the Christians do not followed the Injeel.

And We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow in their footsteps, confirming that which was (revealed) before him in the Torah, and We bestowed on him the Gospel wherein is guidance and a light, confirming that which was (revealed) before it in the Torah - a guidance and an admonition unto those who ward off (evil).

Let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah hath revealed therein. If any do fail to judge by (the light of) what Allah hath revealed, they are (no better than) those who rebel. (5.46-47)
Last edited by newseed on Fri Jun 15, 2007 10:32 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Postby newseed on Fri Jun 15, 2007 10:29 pm

Below is the opening statement by Elisha Kai

In our debate between me and Nasr on the Qur?anic view on the Injeel I would like to begin with the Qur?anic testimony to the integrity of the Gospel, namely that the Gospel that the Christians possessed, read and followed prior to and within the era of Muhammed?s time.

This will already debunk the idea of many contemporary Muslims of our time that the Gospel was corrupted prior to the arrival of Muhammed, whether by Nicea or somewhere else.

It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)


In fact here the Qur?an refers to the Bible (the Greek for Book) or kitab in Arabic

Sura 3: 3 confirms that Allah sent down the Qur?an to confirm what went before it.

Some Muslims presume that the passage suggests that the Qur?an corrects the mistake of e.g. the Gospels; if that being the case however, the Qur?an needs to clarily which mistakes and confirm that these mistakes are existing in the corrupted Bible; the Qur?an never makes this suggestion.

Furthermore Sura 10: 94 debunks any notion of Bible corruption

?If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).


If Sura 3: 3 suggested that the Gospels were so corrupt that they needed correction, why is Muhammed commanded to consult those who read the Gospel in his time?

In other words, why is Muhammed to consult a corrupted book, why does he doubt the Qur?an

It seems that the opposite is true; that in the same way as the Qur?an in Sura 3: 3 does not imply correction of the previous Books but confirmation of the earlier books, in the same the Gospels are supposed to confirm the Qur?an.

The next verse sheds further light on the matter:

Hast thou not turned thy thought to those who have been given a PORTION OF THE BOOK? They are invited to the Book of Allah, to settle their dispute, but a party of them turn back and decline (Sura 3:23)


What Portion of what Book?

Sura 3: 23 seems to imply that the Bible (including the Gospels) and the Qur?an are one Book; the previous Books being a portion of the Book, while the Qur?an consists of the other portion.

This should already be enough to confirm that the Gospel was not corrupted in Muhammed?s time or prior according to the Qur?an.

Yet the Qur?an describes the integrity and of the Qur?an more explicitly

...whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel that IS WITH THEM (Sura 7:156-157)


Sura 7 makes it explicitly clear, that within Muhammed?s era the Gospel is with the Christians

There is not word about corruption here

No suggestion that this Gospel is slightly different from the original

As we have already established as a fact, Muhammed is to consult this Gospel:

?If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).


Furthermore, Christians are encouraged to follow their own Gospel:

?Say, O people of the book! You are not founded on anything until you PERFORM the TORAH and the GOSPEL, and what was revealed to you from your Lord? (Sura 5:68-71)


If the Gospel was corrupted

If the Gospel is distinguished from the original Gospel

Why are Christians not told to reject this Gospel and turn to the Qur?an; instead Christians are asked to confirm it

Why are Christians asked to follow a corrupted Gospel? And if as some Muslims have suggested that Allah shows respect for holy Books, we need to ask why God the Almighty needs to respect corruption, particularly if the corruption effects his own word.

Lets continue:

Be courteous when you argue with People of the Book except with those among them who do evil. Say: ? We believe in that which is revealed to us and which was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one?. (29:46)


Sura 29: 46 is rather explicit

The Muslim is not even permitted to debate Christians on this matter, hence even this debate on this thread actually violates what the Qur?an has established as a rule of faith.

The Muslim is not to debate the Bible he is not even to suggest that the Bible contains errors!

He is simply to proclaim that he believes in his own book, the Qur?an and the Bible, which includes the Gospel

No word about corruption here

Furthermore it debunks the idea that the Gospels were corrupted prior and within Muhammed?s lifetime

There is a set of things the Muslim has to believe in just like Muhammed did:

The Messenger believeth In what hath been revealed to him from his Lord, as do the men of faith, each one (of them) believeth in Allah, His angels, HIS BOOKS, and His messenger. ?WE MAKE NOT DISTINCTION (they say) between one and another of his messengers.? And they say: ?We hear, and we obey: (we seek) Thy forgivness, our Lord, and to Thee is the end of all journeys? (Sura 2:285)


And

Now then, for that (reason), call (them to the Faith), and stand steadfast as thou art commanded, nor follow thou their vain desires; but say: "I believe in whatever Book Allah has sent down; and I am commanded to judge justly between you. Allah is our Lord and your Lord: for us (is the responsibility for) our deeds, and for you for your deeds. There is no contention between us and you. Allah will bring us together, and to Him is (our) final goal. S. 42:15


Muhammed believed in the Books, every Muslim is therefore to believe in the Books, which includes the Gospels

The Qur?an also contains a warning:

O ye who believe! Believe in Allah and his Messenger, and the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO HIS MESSENGER, AND the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO THOSE BEFORE (HIM). Any who denieth Allah, His angels, His BOOKS, His messengers, and the day of judgement, hath gone fare astray (Sura 4:136)


Denying the books as they were possessed, read and followed in Muhammed?s time suggets that the Muslim has gone astray from the true path!!!

Hence the true path of Islam includes the belief in the Bible as preserved and pure!

Furthermore, in Sura 15: 9 the Qur?an refers to the zhikra; which Allah will protect from corruption:

"We have, without doubt sent down THE MESSAGE (Zhikra); And We will assuredly guard it (from corruption)." (Sura 15: 9)


This passage does refer to the Qur?an

However the Qur?an also refers the previous Revelations as zhikra

"And before thee We sent none but men, to whom We granted inspiration: If ye realise this not, ask of those who possess THE MESSAGE (Zhikri)." (16: 43)


"Before thee, also, the messengers We sent were but men, to whom We granted inspiration: if ye know this not, ask of those who possess THE MESSAGE (Zhikri)." (Sura 21: 7)


Interestingly in Sura 15: 9 he continues by referring to the previous revelations:

We verily sent messengers before thee among the factions of men of old (Sura 15: 10)


Lets then look at what Gospel means.

In the Qur?an it is ussually referred to as singular, while Christians often refer to a multiple number of Gospels

How do we solve this paradox?

Is it as some Muslims object by stating that the since Qur?an refers to the Gospel or Injeel in singular form, while the Gospels in the Bible are plural, this is not the same thing?

The problem can easily be solved when we consider the way early Christians referred to the Gospel

Here is what Clement the disicple of Peter the Apostle writes in the first century:

The Apostles received the Gospel for us from the Lord Jesus Christ; Jesus Christ was sent forth from God (1 Clement 42: 1).


Furthermore, Clement stated that people knew the Gospel:

They know the Gospel but also they follow the Law in the sense that they live godly lives (Epistle to the Corinthians, I. p.159)


Irenaeus (the disciple of Polycarp, the disciple of John the apostle) elaborates more on this; he refers to the Gospel which consists of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John:

WE have learned from none others the plan of our salvation, than from those through whom the Gospel has come down to us, which they did at one time proclaim in public, and, at a later period, by the will of God, handed down to us in the Scriptures, to be the ground and pillar of our faith.3309 For it is unlawful to assert that they preached before they possessed ?perfect knowledge,? as some do even venture to say, boasting themselves as improvers of the apostles. For, after our Lord rose from the dead, [the apostles] were invested with power from on high when the Holy Spirit came down [upon them], were filled from all [His gifts], and had perfect knowledge: they departed to the ends of the earth, preaching the glad tidings of the good things [sent] from God to us, and proclaiming the peace of heaven to men, who indeed do all equally and individually possess the Gospel of God. Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome, and laying the foundations of the Church. After their departure, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter. Luke also, the companion of Paul, recorded in a book the Gospel preached by him. Afterwards, John, the disciple of the Lord, who also had leaned upon His breast, did himself publish a Gospel during his residence at Ephesus in Asia (Ireneaus, Against Heresies, Book three; Chapter 1.1).


In 3: 3 he writes:

He says: ?The word?gave us the gospel in a fourfold shape, but held together by one Spirit?.
(Against Heretics, 3:3).


Ignatius also a disciple of the apostle of Peter confirms the plurality of the Gospels:

Philadelphians 8.2 he refers to some people who refuse to believe anything written in the archives (possibly the OT), even if it is affirmed in Gospels (Ignatius to the Philadelphians 8.2).

So far the disciples of the actual apostles have confirmed what the Gospels themselves confirm that the Gospel as writing or as a book consists of a plural number, according to Ireneaus the four Gospels?Matthew, Mark, Luke and John

According to Papias of whom we don?t have the entire manuscripts, there are references to at least two of the one we possess in the Canon?Matthew and Mark

Furthermore, the Gospels and the church fathers have confirmed that the Gospels were conveyed to us not by Jesus but by the Apostles! And that was the way it was intended even by Jesus himself.

In other words, the Gospels are not merely revelations, they are accounts of the eyewitnesses to the sayings and deeds of Jesus:

This is further elaborated on by Justin Martyr:

Justin Martyr (150 AD) writes:

100: 4

For [Christ] called one of His disciples-previously known by the name of Simon-Peter; since he recognised Him to be Christ the Son. of God, by the revelation of His Father: and since we find it recorded in the memoirs of His apostles that He is the Son of God, and since we call Him the Son


Furthermore in 106: 3

before His passion He had mentioned to them that He must suffer these things, and that they were announced beforehand by the prophets), and when living with them sang praises to God, as is made evident in the memoirs of the apostles?And when it is said that He changed the name of one of the apostles to Peter; and when it is written in the memoirs of Him that this so happened, as well as that He changed the names of other two brothers, the sons of Zebedee, to Boanerges, which means sons of thunder?Accordingly, when a star rose in heaven at the time of His birth, as is recorded in the memoirs of His apostles, the Magi from Arabia, recognising the sign by this, came and worshipped Him.


Justin Martyr simply refers to the Gospels as the memoirs of the apostles, in other words what they remembered and conveyed to us.

He does refer to the memoirs of Peter, which according to Papias and Ireneaus was the Gospel of Mark.

Hence we are looking at the Gospel consisting of a multiple number of written Gospels

Interestingly Bukhari also refers to the plurality of the Gospels:

Bukhari also clarifies this:
Narrated 'Aisha:
... Waraqa was the son of her paternal uncle, i.e., her father's brother, who during the Pre-Islamic Period became a Christian and used to write the Arabic writing and used to write of the GOSPELS in Arabic as much as Allah wished him to write ... (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 9, Book 87, Number 111)


And:

Narrated 'Aisha:
The Prophet returned to Khadija while his heart was beating rapidly. She took him to Waraqa bin Naufal who was a Christian convert and used to read the GOSPELS in Arabic ... (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 4, Book 55, Number 605)
Interestingly Waraqa the cousin of Khadija used to read from the Gospels in plural


Following within the same line of the early Christians Bukhari also describes the Gospels as the Gospel:

Khadija then accompanied him to her cousin Waraqa bin Naufal bin Asad bin 'Abdul 'Uzza, who, during the Pre-Islamic Period became a Christian and used to write the writing with Hebrew letters. He would write from THE GOSPEL in Hebrew as much AS ALLAH WISHED HIM TO WRITE ... (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 1, Number 3; see also Volume 6, Book 60, Number 478)


The Gospels were already available in Arabia at Muhammed?s time (unless of course these refer to Gnostic gospels)

But if not, are these the Gospels, Allah commanded Muhammed to consult?
Lets conclude this:

The Qur?an does not make an error by referring to the Gospel as singular
However, the Qur?an is in error to state that Jesus received an actual book from Allah

Jesus spoke the words of God, what was revealed from above (John 5), yet he considered these as his own words (Matthew 5)

Yet nothing in the Gospels or in history suggests that Jesus received a book and conveyed a book; the only reference to books and writings relates to the apostles who compiled and collected the accounts into books, according to their own memory (inspired by the Spirit the Gospels state) and the oral form they and the Christian community had memorized it in; the apostles then conveyed this account in individual way that it related to various individual communities.

Fourth point I want to make: WHAT IS THE GOSPEL WRITING? This is important to consider when we view the Gospel in the light of the Qur?an.

First and most, the Gospel writing is not the kind of revelation the Qur?an or the Muslim wants us to believe; the Gospel writing or the Injeel is the personal eye-witness account of the Apostles and the assessment of that testimony (for an historical assessment of the Gospel writing read the Gospel of Luke)

In other words the responsibility of the Gospel account was given to the Apostles:

The apostles are chosen since they have been along since the beginning and have empirically experienced and observed the account, both events and teaching:

?When the Counsellor comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who goes out from the Father, he will testify about me. And you also must testify, for you have been with me from the beginning? (John 15: 26-27)


Because the apostles possess the empirical experience and calling to sustain and propagate the account, their account becomes the foundation for all its insight and information:

?Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. Therefore, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, it seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught? (Luke 1: 1-4).


The account will include Jesus? teaching:

??and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you?? (Matthew 28: 20).


It will include the events and narrative:

?He told them, ?This is what is written: The Christ will suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and repentance and forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. You are witnesses of these things?? (Luke 24: 45-47).


Furthermore the responsibility of the account will be aided and secured by the inspiration and help of the Holy Spirit:

?All this I have spoke while still with you. But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you? (John 14: 25)


?On my account you will be brought before governors and kings as witnesses to them and to the Gentiles. But when they arrest you, do not worry about what to say or how to say it. At that time you will be given what to say, for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you? (Matthew 10: 18-20)


But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth (Acts 1: 8.).


The disciples will receive further Revelation:

?I have much more to say to you, more than you can now bear. But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come? (John 16: 12-13)


This debunks the Muslim claim that we are to base our belief on the book of Jesus, rather than the apostles. In fact the New Testament and external sources confirm that such a gospel never existed.

Furthermore, Jesus does not require the future generations to read his book or even listen to his words, but rather listen to the Apostles who are eyewitnesses and have been entrusted with the account. This seems to be the view of the early Christians, e.g Clement of Rome the disciple of Peter the apostle of Jesus:

The Apostles received the Gospel for us from the Lord Jesus Christ; Jesus Christ was sent forth from God (1 Clement 42: 1). So then Christ is from God, and the Apostles are from Christ. Both therefore came of the will of God in the appointed order (1 Clement 42: 2). Having therefore received a charge, and having been fully assured through the resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ and confirmed in the word of God with full assurance of the Holy Ghost, they went forth with the glad tidings that the kingdom of God should come (1 Clement 42: 3). So preaching everywhere in country and town, they appointed their firstfruits, when they had proved them by the Spirit, to be bishops and deacons unto them that should believe (1 Clement 42: 4)
.

Here Clement refers to an appointed order; from God to Jesus, from Jesus to the Apostles, from the Apostles to the church.

If the Muslim intends to prove his case:

1) he needs to present evidence contrary to these sources;

2) he needs to prove from the disciples of the apostles, that a Gospel existed which was given to Jesus, of which the Apostles had no responsibility;

3) he also needs to present evidences from the Apostolic circle and their associates from which the teachings of the present New Testament is rejected or at least contradictory.

That is basically the full summary of the history of the Gospels

How about passages that indicate corruption in the Gospels

Some Muslims have suggested that the Qur?an in facts confirms the corruption of the Christian writings:

"Among them are unlettered folk who know the Scripture not except from hearsay. THEY BUT GUESS. Therefore woe be unto those who write Scripture with their hands and then say, `This is from Allah,' that they may purchase a small gain therewith. Woe unto them for that their hands have written, and woe unto them for that they earn thereby." (Sura 2: 78-9)


However, the context of this passage relates to the Jews and has therefore no significance of this debate as we are focusing on the Gospel, not the Torah.

However, even if the passage related to the Gospel two problems emerge:

1. The proposition of the text would completely contradict history and history would in fact debunk the proposition of this passage

2. The passage would contradict all other passages in the Qur?an that consider the integrity of the Gospel

But then again the passage does not even indicate the corruption so often emphatically emphasised by Muslims; three points need to be considered:

1. The reference is not to a global corruption but a local

2. The corrupters are unlettered and do not even know Scripture, they guess?obviously if they do not know Scripture, how can they corrupt it

3. They do not corrupt Scripture, they in fact fabricate Scripture; Scripture is still intact and exists

Another reference to the corruption of the Gospels has been suggested by Nadir Ahmed, in his debate with Sam Shamoun; Nadir suggested that the refernce to conjecture in Sura 4: 157 implies that the Gospels have been corrupted:

http://www.abrahamic-faith.com/debates.html

That they say in boast ?We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary the apostle of Allah?; but they killed him not nor crucified him, but so it was made appear to them and those who differ therein are full of doubts with no certain knowledge but only conjecture to follow for of a surety they killed him not. Nay Allah raised him unto himself, and Allah is exalted in power, Wise (Sura 4: 157-159).


However, the passage says nothing about Scripture; the Qur?an does presume that the Christians were teaching stuff that contradicts the Qur?an?but never that such ideas consisted with or belonged to the Scripture of the Christians.

I guess that?s me for this time

So far I have assessed and analyzed the Qur'anic view of the Gospel and compared its view to the Gospel within the light of history and the Gospels themselves.

Be blessed

Elisha Kai
Psalm 118:8 "It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in man"

John 14:7 "If ye had known Me, ye should have known My Father also: and from henceforth ye know Him, and have seen Him."
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Postby Elisha Kai on Mon Jun 25, 2007 10:04 am

Sorry I have been busy as ussual and my computer was effected by something, its fixed now

Maybe I misunderstood something, but I thought that the private forum could be view by anyone even non-registered viewers.

I mean I am open for whatever suggestions there are; but I know that many non-members may even like to view the debate.

Be blessed

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What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby nasr on Wed Jul 04, 2007 12:12 pm

Elisha Kai wrote:
It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)

the Qur?an refers to the Bible (the Greek for Book) or kitab in Arabic

In sura 3.3, kitab in Arabic refers to the Quran NOT the Bible. Torah and Injeel are mentioned specifically in this verse. The Quran confirms that the Torah and the Injeel were revealed by God and confirms the truth that is in them, it does not confirm that your Bible is the Torah or the Injeel.

Elisha Kai wrote: the Qur?an needs to clarily which mistakes and confirm that these mistakes are existing in the corrupted Bible; the Qur?an never makes this suggestion.

The Quran does mentions numerous mistakes held by Christians including trinity, divinity, son of God, and crucifixion. (4.157,4.171, 5.13-14, 5.73, 9.31, 23.91, 43.64, 57.27...)

Elisha Kai wrote: ...we have already established as a fact, Muhammed is to consult this Gospel:
?If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).

This is NOT an established fact. We are to consult those who read the book, not the book itself, but those "who read the book before you" if you doubt that Muhammad's advent is prophesied in it:

And if thou art in doubt concerning that which We reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scripture (that was) before thee... (10.94)

M. Pickthal

AND SO, [O man,] if thou art in doubt about [the truth of] what We have [now] bestowed upon thee from on high, ask those who read the divine writ [revealed] before thy time [and thou wilt find that,] surely, the truth has now come unto thee from thy Sustainer... (10.94)

M. Asad wrote:The "reading" is here a metonym for belief, namely, in the Bible, which-notwithstanding the fact that its text has been corrupted in the course of time-still contains clear references to the advent of the Prophet Muhammad and thus, by implication, to the truth of the divine message revealed through him. In its wider sense, the above verse alludes to the unbroken continuity of man's religious experience and to the fact, frequently stressed in the Qur'an, that every one of God's apostles preached one and the same basic truth.

Message of the Qur'an, M. Asad

The historical fact that many thousands of Christians converted to Islam because they recognized Muhammad from their scriptures and recognized the Quran as the same message of God. Muhammad is mentioned in the Injeel but if he is not found in your Gospel it is because his advent has been concealed through mis-translations, re-interpretations and the selective banning of "versions" that did not support official Church doctrine or, in other words; if Muhammad is not mentioned in your Gospel, it is because your Gospel is not the Injeel.

Elisha Kai wrote:...nothing in the Gospels or in history suggests that Jesus received a book and conveyed a book...
...the Gospel writing or the Injeel is the personal eye-witness account of the Apostles and the assessment of that testimony...
This debunks the Muslim claim that we are to base our belief on the book of Jesus, rather than the apostles. In fact the New Testament and external sources confirm that such a gospel never existed.

This claim proves that the accounts of Jesus written by the Apostles is not the Injeel because the Quran says that the Injeel was revealed to Jesus as a book or scripture. Therefore your Gospel is not the Injeel.

Elisha Kai wrote:
Be courteous when you argue with People of the Book except with those among them who do evil. Say: ? We believe in that which is revealed to us and which was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one?. (29:46)

The Muslim is not even permitted to debate Christians on this matter, hence even this debate on this thread actually violates what the Qur?an has established as a rule of faith.

The Muslim is not to debate the Bible he is not even to suggest that the Bible contains errors!

Be courteous when you argue... "We believe... in that which was revealed to you." (29.46)
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby Elisha Kai on Wed Oct 10, 2007 1:05 pm

Sorry brothers for my late reply, studies have more than ever occupied my time, and I guess that will continue some months ahead.

This will be my reply to the opening statement of Nasr (not his rebuttle)

I have read it and there is fairly little for me to disagree it, since we consider the Qur'an's view on the Injeel, therefore I will not act so polemical at this point; however let me just comment on some of the points.

Nasr wrote:

Injeel is mentioned 12 times in the Quran. In the English Quran it is translated to Gospel.

And He will teach him [Jesus] the Scripture and wisdom, and the Torah and the Gospel (3.48.)

I taught thee [Jesus] the Scripture and Wisdom and the Torah and the Gospel (5.110)

We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow, and gave him the Gospel (57.27)

And We bestowed on him [Jesus] the Gospel (5.46)

He hath revealed unto thee [Muhammad] the Scripture with truth, confirming that which was before it, even as He revealed the Torah and the Gospel. (3.3)
From these five verses it is clear that the Injeel was taught or revealed to Jesus.


Elisha replies:

I agree, this is what the Qur'an teaches; however this is not what the Bible nor history tells us; so in terms of the topic, you are correct here, the Qur'an does teach this; as to historical sources, that the Injil as a book was revealed to Jesus nothing confirms this.

Nasr wrote:

If only the People of the Scripture would believe... If they had observed the Torah and the Gospel (5.65,66)

O People of the Scripture! Ye have naught (of guidance) till ye observe the Torah and the Gospel (5.68.)
From these verses it is clear that the Christians do not followed the Injeel.

And We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow in their footsteps, confirming that which was (revealed) before him in the Torah, and We bestowed on him the Gospel wherein is guidance and a light, confirming that which was (revealed) before it in the Torah - a guidance and an admonition unto those who ward off (evil).

Let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah hath revealed therein. If any do fail to judge by (the light of) what Allah hath revealed, they are (no better than) those who rebel. (5.46-47)

From these verses it is clear that the Christians do not followed the Injeel.


Elisha Kai replies:

I agree again, there are passages in the Qur'an that state this; I just wonder this relates to Christians generally or just in a specific location.

However, what I am interested in here is the issue of corruption, none of these passage state that the Injeel is corrupt; the Christians according to these passages fail or refuse to obey it; but then how can it be corrupted; obviously if they disobey there must the the alternative possibility to obey, and that is only possible if the Injeel is in existence and available, which Sura 5: 68 also confirms.

Be blessed

Elisha Kai

PS: do I reply Nasr's rebuttle next or will Nasr reply to my reply to his opening statement?
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby newseed on Wed Oct 10, 2007 1:34 pm

Elisha Kai wrote:PS: do I reply Nasr's rebuttle next or will Nasr reply to my reply to his opening statement?


It's pretty open now but I would think that taking turns would be good. If you feel that you must answer more than one post, then do it in one post.

PS: Welcome back.
Psalm 118:8 "It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in man"

John 14:7 "If ye had known Me, ye should have known My Father also: and from henceforth ye know Him, and have seen Him."
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby nasr on Wed Oct 10, 2007 2:26 pm

Elisha Kai wrote:...none of these passage state that the Injeel is corrupt


The Gospel that you have is not the Injeel.

Elisha Kai wrote:...if they disobey there must the alternative possibility to obey, and that is only possible if the Injeel is in existence and available...


The alternative is obey the Quran.

O People of the Scripture! Now hath Our messenger come unto you, expounding unto you much of that which ye used to hide in the Scripture, and forgiving much. Now hath come unto you light from Allah and plain Scripture, whereby Allah guideth him who seeketh His good pleasure unto paths of peace. He bringeth them out of darkness unto light by His decree, and guideth them unto a straight path. (Quran 5.15)

Those are they unto whom We gave the Scripture and command and prophethood. But if these disbelieve therein, then indeed We shall entrust it to a people who will not be disbelievers therein. Those are they whom Allah guideth, so follow their guidance. Say: I ask of you no fee for it. Lo! it is naught but a Reminder to His creatures.

And they measure not the power of Allah its true measure when they say: Allah hath naught revealed unto a human being. Say: Who revealed the Book which Moses brought, a light and guidance for mankind, which ye have put on parchments which ye show, but ye hide much thereof, and by which ye were taught that which ye knew not yourselves nor your fathers? Say: Allah. Then leave them to their play of cavilling. (Quran 6.89)
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby Elisha Kai on Wed Nov 14, 2007 5:31 pm

This is my reply to Nasr's rebuttle

Nasr wrote:

Elisha Kai wrote:
It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)

the Qur?an refers to the Bible (the Greek for Book) or kitab in Arabic


In sura 3.3, kitab in Arabic refers to the Quran NOT the Bible. Torah and Injeel are mentioned specifically in this verse. The Quran confirms that the Torah and the Injeel were revealed by God and confirms the truth that is in them, it does not confirm that your Bible is the Torah or the Injeel.


Elisha Kai replies:

Thanks for clarifying this Nasr, actually I meant Sura 3: 23 and Sura 10:94; my reference to 3:3 was mainly to confirm that all the revelations are in fact Bible. However, I did clarify in the context that the reference was the Qur’an.

It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)

In fact here the Qur’an refers to the Bible (the Greek for Book) or kitab in Arabic

Sura 3: 3 confirms that Allah sent down the Qur’an to confirm what went before it.


However that was not the main point of reference

The main point related to the confirmation of the Qur’an to the previous revelations and how these supposedly according to the Qur’an fit together. I am glad you pointed out a mistake in my post, yet unfortunately you were not referring to the actual problem I pointed out.

Nasr wrote:
Elisha Kai wrote: the Qur?an needs to clarily which mistakes and confirm that these mistakes are existing in the corrupted Bible; the Qur?an never makes this suggestion.


The Quran does mentions numerous mistakes held by Christians including trinity, divinity, son of God, and crucifixion. (4.157,4.171, 5.13-14, 5.73, 9.31, 23.91, 43.64, 57.27...)


Elisha Kai replies:

But this is not exactly the issue we are dealing with.

Sure, while the Qur’an presumably denies the divinity of Jesus (Isa); I am not so sure it denies the divinity of Christ (Masih) as the Qur’an is so influenced by Gnosticism anyway. I am not so sure whether the Qur’an strictly denies Jesus’ death and resurrection (I clearly see the possibility of a Gnostic account here and a Christian, however that is another topic); the author of the Qur’an also presumes that the New Testament teaches Christ literal sonship of God, which is an incredible theological error. So your reply here is somehow confusing, you need to bring more depth into it.

However, even though the Qur’an did deny all this, nothing in the Qur’an indicates that these are corrections to the present-time Injeel.

In that case you need to bring up a verse in the Qur’an stating that Allah is in fact referring to these matters to correct the corruption of the Injeel, and such a verse does not exist in the Qur’an.

It seems rather that the Qur’an presumes the Christians to teach these doctrine even though they are not found in their writings. Here the author of the Qur’an again acts in ignorance.

If however, you are able to present a verse from the Qur’an that confirms your statement, namely that these verses correct the Injeel, then the second problem pops up, namely that they contradict all the other verses in the Qur’an that confirm the integrity of the Injeel within Muhammad’s era.

Nasr wrote:

Elisha Kai wrote: ...we have already established as a fact, Muhammed is to consult this Gospel:
?If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).


This is NOT an established fact. We are to consult those who read the book, not the book itself, but those "who read the book before you" if you doubt that Muhammad's advent is prophesied in it:
And if thou art in doubt concerning that which We reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scripture (that was) before thee... (10.94)

M. Pickthal

AND SO, [O man,] if thou art in doubt about [the truth of] what We have [now] bestowed upon thee from on high, ask those who read the divine writ [revealed] before thy time [and thou wilt find that,] surely, the truth has now come unto thee from thy Sustainer... (10.94)
M. Asad wrote:The "reading" is here a metonym for belief, namely, in the Bible, which-notwithstanding the fact that its text has been corrupted in the course of time-still contains clear references to the advent of the Prophet Muhammad and thus, by implication, to the truth of the divine message revealed through him. In its wider sense, the above verse alludes to the unbroken continuity of man's religious experience and to the fact, frequently stressed in the Qur'an, that every one of God's apostles preached one and the same basic truth.

Message of the Qur'an, M. Asad

The historical fact that many thousands of Christians converted to Islam because they recognized Muhammad from their scriptures and recognized the Quran as the same message of God. Muhammad is mentioned in the Injeel but if he is not found in your Gospel it is because his advent has been concealed through mis-translations, re-interpretations and the selective banning of "versions" that did not support official Church doctrine or, in other words; if Muhammad is not mentioned in your Gospel, it is because your Gospel is not the Injeel.


Elisha Kai replies:

There are three points I want to clarify here

Firstly, you state that making an inquiry with the Christians about the book is not the same as consulting the book itself, hence Allah is not giving credit to the Bible.

However, the whole point with the passage is Muhammed consulting the Christian doctrine to confirm his own revelation. I assume if Allah intended this and if the Bible is corrupted, he would not urge Muhammed to consult these, even worse considering your point, I guess more corruption would appear if he was to consulted those corrupted believers who were supposed to interpret these corrupted texts.

Obviously, if you think about this verse logically, without reading modern Islamic apologetics into it, Allah intends Muhammad to confirm his religion by consulting the non-corrupted text that came before him; this is only accomplished by meeting with those who possess this text and are able to read them for him. Whether Muhammad did so or not, is not the issue, the issue is: the author of the Qur’an was of this view.

Your Second error, you presume that Muhammad merely is to do this to confirm the prophecy about himself in the Injeel, yet this is does not appear in the verse or its context. You even base this claim not upon the Qur’an but someone like M. Asad, who simply reads this interpretation into the text, probably to clarify an embarrasing problem.

Thirdly, the Christians who were invaded by early Islamic armies were converted not because Muhammed was found in the Bible (Muhammed is not found in the Bible) but because they were forced into it (but that is another topic, different thread)

Nasr wrote:

Elisha Kai wrote:...nothing in the Gospels or in history suggests that Jesus received a book and conveyed a book...
...the Gospel writing or the Injeel is the personal eye-witness account of the Apostles and the assessment of that testimony...
This debunks the Muslim claim that we are to base our belief on the book of Jesus, rather than the apostles. In fact the New Testament and external sources confirm that such a gospel never existed.


This claim proves that the accounts of Jesus written by the Apostles is not the Injeel because the Quran says that the Injeel was revealed to Jesus as a book or scripture. Therefore your Gospel is not the Injeel.


Elisha Kai replies:

Well here you are turning toward proposition.

You assume that a book appearing 600 years after has the authority to correct the Gospels and the history behind it, I find that extremely naïve.

Much like any cult appearing today that would tell the Muslim that newly received revelations state that Muhammed in fact never was a prophet, that he actually killed the true prophet and took over his religion; in fact check out ‘Factualism’ which actually makes this claim.

I am sure all Muslims would declare such claims absurdity; probably the best way to approach the historicity of Islam is to consult the Qur’an, the Hadith and the early history of Islam not later centuries prophetic claims that contain no historical value what so ever.

The same is true of Christianity, if you want to know about Christianity consider its texts, history and the historical writings, not naïve claims. In this matter I have both text and history against you.

What seems obvious rather, is that the Qur’an refers to the very Injeel used by the Christians in Muhammad’s time and that this text was not corrupted, even though some of the Christians were.

The Qur’an however, makes the error of presenting a completely wrong picture of the historical origin of the Injeel; this is but another embarrassing error in the Qur’an. This contrary your claim, does not indicate that the Gospel is not the Injeel, but that the Qur’an is ignorant of the facts.

As I pointed out in my opening approach, the Qur’an:

1. Nowhere states that the Injeel is corrupted
2. It claims the Injeel existed in its original form in the time of Muhammed
3. It reveals that the Christian possessed this original form in the time of Muhammed
4. It commands Muhammed to consult this Injeel in his own lifetime

You have not managed to debunk any of these points by simply referring to the Qur’an

Be blessed

Elisha Kai
Last edited by Elisha Kai on Sat Jan 12, 2008 11:19 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby nasr on Thu Nov 15, 2007 6:03 pm

You wrote:...the Qur’an is ignorant of the facts.


Believe whatever you like, God alone can guide you to the true facts! This is not a discussion about what you believe but about What the Quran says about the Injeel.

I will address your points again briefly:
[The Quran] Nowhere states that the Injeel is corrupted

The Injeel is not corrupt, it is your Gospel which is corrupt. You have wrongly assumed that the Gospel is the Injeel.

It claims the Injeel existed in its original form in the time of Muhammed.

Even if the Injeel exists in its original form today, it is not your Gospel.

It reveals that the Christian possessed this original form in the time of Muhammed.

The Quran states that the Injeel was revealed to Jesus as the Torah was revealed to Moses. The Gospel that you have is not the revealed words of God to Jesus but is only an account of the events as recalled by those around him.

It commands Muhammed to consult this Injeel in his own lifetime:
And if thou art in doubt concerning that which We reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scripture (that was) before thee... (10.94)


Muhammad did consult his wife's uncle who confirmed that he was mentioned in the Scriptures. I myself also read the Bible before I became a Muslim and I can also attest that Muhammad is mentioned in it. However I may interpret it, it does not mean that the Bible is not corrupted; certainly it is corrupted. My personal interpretation of the Bible not only proves to me that Muhammad is mentioned in it but proves to me that it has been deliberately altered to hide this fact.
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby Elisha Kai on Fri Nov 16, 2007 2:28 pm

Nasr wrote:
You wrote:...the Qur’an is ignorant of the facts.

Believe whatever you like, God alone can guide you to the true facts! This is not a discussion about what you believe but about What the Quran says about the Injeel.


Elisha Kai replies:

But this is not a matter of my belief, this is historical; it has no relation to faith nor presupposition.

Nasr wrote:

I will address your points again briefly:
[The Quran] Nowhere states that the Injeel is corrupted

The Injeel is not corrupt, it is your Gospel which is corrupt. You have wrongly assumed that the Gospel is the Injeel.
It claims the Injeel existed in its original form in the time of Muhammed.

Even if the Injeel exists in its original form today, it is not your Gospel.
It reveals that the Christian possessed this original form in the time of Muhammed.


Elisha Kai Replies:
Lets look at this from two angles, firstly the study of the word itself:

I don’t see how this proves your point, the Gospel is referred differently in many languages, such as Gospel, evangellion and Injeel, just to mention a few. This does not suggest three or more different Gospels.

The claim that Injeel and the Greek evangellion because they referred to differently in two different languages is not only illogical but it fails historically. According to historians and language experts in Semitic and Greek languages the term Injeel was not Arabic at it was Syriac-Greek.

The word Injeel is not even Arabic it possesses not even a root in the Arabic language, as confirmed by even ancient Islamic scholars such as Baidawi and Zamakshari, who themselves supposedly claimed that the word was Syriac. (see here Arthur Jeffery, The Foreign Vocabulary of the Quran, pp. 71-72)

Arthur Jeffrey himself state that Injeel is a transliteration from the Greek evaggalion (evangelion) and was according to historians the common usage among Syriac Christians, of which Muhammad associated 71; this is how the Injeel was brought into the Qur’anic text.

Furthermore, and I am not saying that this is a fact, but according to some experts in this field of study, the word is so foreign to the Arabic language, that they suspect even the verses referring to Injeel to be later interpolations 72

Secondly, lets look at the Historical sources:

The very fact that the Qur’an claims that the Injeel existed, in Muhammad’s time in a non-corrupt form, and was possessed and read by the Christians confirms, obviously that this is the very same Gospel we are looking at.

The manuscript evidence for the Gospels, the Christian intellectual centres of Gospel copying and translations can all be traced back to the second century and earlier, such as Syrian Antioch, Alexandria and Rome.

Furthermore, we possess several Christian isnads (as you Muslims call it), that is chains of transmission way back to the apostles and up to the time of Muhammed; this confirms that the Gospel was protected and preserved, and that the author of the Qur’an refers to is the same historical evangellion

It is possible that the author of the Qur’an refers to another gospel possibly a Gnostic, however, I doubt that, since in Gnosticism Jesus is merely docetic and purely divine.

In fact he is a divine being called Christ, the word or Logos of God who proceeds from God, who merely possessed the human Jesus until the time of suffering, whereupon he left Jesus’ body returned back to heaven (pleroma) and tricked the Jews, Romans, and even some of the disciples that he died.

Certainly some passages in the Qur’an depend upon such sources; Jesus being divine, the Logos proceeding from God (Allah) (Sura 4: 171) and believing to have been crucified while it only appeared to them so (Sura 4: 157-159).

However, if the Muslim is advocate this source he also has to accept the entire Gnostic package which makes Christ completely divine.

Furthermore, the speculative idea that Muhammad is mentioned in the Gospel derives unfortunately for the Muslim not from the often alleged Muslim Gospel, that is Mark’s Gospel, but the Gospel of John, the very much Christian Gospel.

Hence if Qur’an refers to the Gospel to prove Muhammad it is referring to John’s Gospel; unfortunately again, the author misses the point, the ‘paraclete’ in John is not Muhammed but the Holy Spirit, that is unless of course Muhammad is omnipresent and derived on earth in the first century to dwell as ‘one’ with the Father and remaining in the disciples and every Christian—I don’t think so.

There were however heretics out there in the third century who claimed to be the paraclete probably the author of the Qur’an is following this trend of interpretation.

Nasr wrote:

The Quran states that the Injeel was revealed to Jesus as the Torah was revealed to Moses. The Gospel that you have is not the revealed words of God to Jesus but is only an account of the events as recalled by those around him.


Elisha Kai replies:

Well, historically this is certainly the same Injeel even though the Qur’an confuses the historical details. But even though it was as you say only the account of those who followed him, as it really is, it confirms the historical facts about Jesus, his words and deeds. There is no reason why such accounts should be corrupted!

Nasr wrote:

It commands Muhammed to consult this Injeel in his own lifetime:
And if thou art in doubt concerning that which We reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scripture (that was) before thee... (10.94)

Muhammad did consult his wife's uncle who confirmed that he was mentioned in the Scriptures. I myself also read the Bible before I became a Muslim and I can also attest that Muhammad is mentioned in it. However I may interpret it, it does not mean that the Bible is not corrupted; certainly it is corrupted. My personal interpretation of the Bible not only proves to me that Muhammad is mentioned in it but proves to me that it has been deliberately altered to hide this fact.


Elisha Kai replies:

But now we are looking at personal interpretation. My approach as a student of theology and history, is to approach the Bible (that is in my academic studies) without faith and speculation, simply to consult the historical evidences and sources; that is the only way you historically can deal with facts and retain the reality of them.

As to Muhammad’s uncle, well problem here is: you doubt the historical Gospels, the accounts of those who followed Jesus because they are human writings, then why would you believe anything written in the Hadiths.

Furthermore, what verse in the Injeel was Muhammad’s uncle referring to? Was it John? In that case he must have presumed Muhammad to be God. It simply makes not sense.

Basically and to summarize it, I don’t see how you can simply escape the Qur’anic testimony of the reliability of the Gospel (Injeel) by simply separating these by their reference of language.


Be blessed

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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby Elisha Kai on Sat Sep 27, 2008 2:03 pm

I don't know where Nasr is (perhaps he has reasons for his absense), but I will soon consider myself to have won this debate.
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby nasr on Fri Oct 03, 2008 12:57 am

Elisha Kai,

Thanks for you patients.

I'm sorry I don't quite understand your last statement:
You wrote:I don’t see how you can simply escape the Qur’anic testimony of the reliability of the Gospel (Injeel) by simply separating these by their reference of language.


I don't think its the "reference of language." Your Gospel was not revealed to Jesus as the Torah was revealed to Moses, and therefore it is not the Gospel refered to in the Quran. Call it Gospel or call it Injeel, whatever; it is not the revelation to Jesus.

Elisha wrote:The very fact that the Qur’an claims that the Injeel existed, in Muhammad’s time in a non-corrupt form, and was possessed and read by the Christians confirms, obviously that this is the very same Gospel we are looking at.


This is not obvious nor does it confirm that the "Gospel" you are looking at is anything at all. The Quran claims the Injeel exsisted, you don't know what those Christians possesed except that it did confirm the advent of Muhammad as the Promised Prophet. Considering that yours apparently does not confirm Muhammad, it could not be the same.

Elisha wrote:...we possess several Christian... chains of transmission way back to the apostles and up to the time of Muhammed; this confirms that the Gospel was protected and preserved


The Quran does not confirm that the Gospel was preserved.

Elisha wrote:However, if the Muslim is advocate this source he also has to accept the entire Gnostic package which makes Christ completely divine.


We don't even know the entire Gnostic package, most of the Gnostic Gospels were branded as heretical by the Church and destroyed. I only advocate this as a possible alternative source and an example of the fallibility and corruptability of all Christian sources.

Elisha wrote:Well, historically this is certainly the same Injeel even though the Qur’an confuses the historical details. But even though it was as you say only the account of those who followed him, as it really is, it confirms the historical facts about Jesus, his words and deeds. There is no reason why such accounts should be corrupted!


The reason is that the accounts are corrupted and continue to be corrupted with evey new translation, version, revision, and heterical sect like the Jehovah's... Historically there have been many books claiming to be "The Gospel." Perhaps it is Christianity or even the disciples who confused the details, that is obvious to me and anyone who compares the four accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John.

Elisha wrote:Furthermore, what verse in the Injeel was Muhammad’s uncle referring to? ... It simply makes not sense.


Because that "Gospel" was likely destroyed or the verse was simply ommited by the Church.
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby John 10:10 on Mon Nov 03, 2008 10:24 pm

nasr wrote: The reason is that the accounts are corrupted and continue to be corrupted with evey new translation, version, revision, and heterical sect like the Jehovah's... Historically there have been many books claiming to be "The Gospel." Perhaps it is Christianity or even the disciples who confused the details, that is obvious to me and anyone who compares the four accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John.

The point you miss time and time again is that all the translations of the Bible in existance today, excluding heritical sects such as the Jehovah Witnesses, have as their basis manuscripts that predate by many hundreds of years the Quran which came into existance in the 7th century. Some of these translations are very true to the original manuscripts, and some are not. But most of the Bible translations we have today are very accurate when it comes to the essentials of God's salvation in Christ Jesus. Islam's problem today, as was Muhammad's, is that you reject the Bible that was in existance when the Quran came into existance in the 7th century, and you reject God's salvation in Christ Jesus.

Unless you can show how the Bible has been corrupted since the 7th century concerning God's salvation message in Christ Jesus, the message of the Quran has no legs to stand on since the Bible that was in existance when the Quran came into existance in the 7th century does not confirm the Quran but refutes the primary message of the Quran.

The Bible that was in existance in the 7th century proclaimed that we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life (Rom 5:10).

End of corruption account story!
John 14:6, "I (Jesus) am the Way (of life), the Truth (of life), and the Life (of life). No man comes to the Father (God) but by Me."
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Re: What the Quran says about the Injeel

Postby nasr on Wed Nov 19, 2008 4:07 pm

John 10:10 wrote:...the translations of the Bible in existance today... have as their basis manuscripts that predate by many hundreds of years the Quran...


The oldest manuscripts are reported to predate the Quran by only one hundred years: Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus date only from the Fourth Century. Furthermore, these manuscripts were not even made available to scholars until a little more than 200 years ago!


Codex Sinaiticus - Dates from the mid fourth century and originally included both Old and New Testaments plus the Epistle of Barnabas and the Shepherd of Hermas, all in Greek. Brought out of St. Catherine's Convent on Mount Sinai in 1859 this codex is currently in the British Museum in London.

Codex Vaticanus - Fourth century Greek codex of the Old and the New Testaments. The history of this codex is not known before it appears in a Vatican catalogue of 1475 although it is of the "Alexandrian" type of text. The book was jealously guarded by Vatican officials and was not available to open scholarship until 1889. The original is still in the Vatican.
http://www.westminster.edu/staff/brennie/mss.htm


The Bible you have today was not compiled and did not come into exsistance until many hundreds of years after the Quran.
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What the Bible says about God's salvation in Christ Jesus

Postby John 10:10 on Fri Nov 21, 2008 3:01 pm

nasr,

You are off by 400-500 years on the NT writings, and even more on the OT writings. Read on if you have an open mind.

http://www.allaboutthejourney.org/bible-manuscripts.htm

Bible Manuscripts

Dramatically, when the Bible manuscripts are compared to other ancient writings, they stand alone as the best-preserved literary works of all antiquity. Remarkably, there are thousands of existing Old Testament manuscripts and fragments copied throughout the Middle East, Mediterranean and European regions that agree phenomenally with each other. 1 In addition, these texts substantially agree with the Septuagint version of the Old Testament, which was translated from Hebrew to Greek some time during the 3rd century BC. 2 The Dead Sea Scrolls, discovered in Israel in the 1940's and 50's, also provide astounding evidence for the reliability of the ancient transmission of the Jewish Scriptures (Old Testament) in the 1st, 2nd and 3rd centuries BC. 3

The manuscript evidence for the "New Testament" is also dramatic, with nearly 25,000 ancient manuscripts discovered and archived so far, at least 5,600 of which are copies and fragments in the original Greek. 4 Some manuscript texts date to the early second and third centuries, with the time between the original autographs and our earliest existing fragment being a remarkably short 40-60 years. 5

Interestingly, this manuscript evidence far surpasses the manuscript reliability of other ancient writings that we trust as authentic every day. Look at these comparisons: Julius Caesar's The Gallic Wars (10 manuscripts remain, with the earliest one dating to 1,000 years after the original autograph); Pliny the Younger's Natural History (7 manuscripts; 750 years elapsed); Thucydides' History (8 manuscripts; 1,300 years elapsed); Herodotus' History (8 manuscripts; 1,350 years elapsed); Plato (7 manuscripts; 1,300 years); and Tacitus' Annals (20 manuscripts; 1,000 years). 6

Renowned Bible scholar F.F. Bruce declares:

There is no body of ancient literature in the world which enjoys such a wealth of good textual attestation as the New Testament. 7
Homer's Iliad, the most renowned book of ancient Greece, is the second best-preserved literary work of all antiquity, with 643 copies of manuscript support discovered to date. In those copies, there are 764 disputed lines of text, as compared to 40 lines in all the New Testament manuscripts. 8 In fact, many people are unaware that there are no surviving manuscripts of any of William Shakespeare's 37 plays (written in the 1600's), and scholars have been forced to fill some gaps in his works. 9 This pales in textual comparison with the over 5,600 copies and fragments of the New Testament in the original Greek that, together, assure us that nothing's been lost. In fact, all of the New Testament except eleven minor verses can be reconstructed outside the Bible from the writings of the early church leaders in the second and third centuries AD. 10

In real terms, the New Testament is easily the best attested ancient writing in terms of the sheer number of documents, the time span between the events and the document, and the variety of documents available to sustain or contradict it. There is nothing in ancient manuscript evidence to match such textual availability and integrity. 11
The academic discipline of "textual criticism" assures us that the Bible translations we have today are essentially the same as the ancient Bible manuscripts, with the exception of a few inconsequential discrepancies that have been introduced over time through copyist error. We must remember that the Bible was hand-copied for hundreds of years before the invention of the first printing press. Nevertheless, the text is exceedingly well preserved. Again, I pondered this -- of the approximately 20,000 lines that make up the entire New Testament, only 40 lines are in question. These 40 lines represent one quarter of one percent of the entire text and do not in any way affect the teaching and doctrine of the New Testament. I again compared this with Homer's Iliad. Of the approximately 15,600 lines that make up Homer's classic, 764 lines are in question. These 764 lines represent over 5% of the entire text, and yet nobody seems to question the general integrity of that ancient work.

To my real surprise, I discovered the Bible to be better preserved -- by far -- than other ancient works I've read and accepted over the years, such as Homer, Plato and Aristotle. As far as my "interpretation of an interpolation of an oral tradition" theory, I found that the Bible was not changed or interpreted from the ancient source texts. Simply, as the Bible was carried from country to country, it was translated into languages that don't necessarily mirror the original languages of Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic. However, other than some grammatical and cultural differences, the "Bible manuscripts" are absolutely true to their original form and content, and remarkably well-preserved in their various translations.

Read More Now!

1 Josh McDowell, The New Evidence that Demands a Verdict, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1999, 71-73.
2 Josh McDowell, Evidence that Demands a Verdict, vol.1, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1979, 58-59.
3 Ibid. 56-57.
4 McDowell, The New Evidence that Demands a Verdict, 34-36.
5 John Ryland's Gospel of John fragment, John Ryland's Library of Manchester, England. See also, Ibid., 38.
6 McDowell, Evidence that Demands a Verdict, vol.1, 42.
7 F.F. Bruce, The Books and the Parchments: How We Got Our English Bible, Fleming H. Revell Co., 1950, 178.
8 Norman L. Geisler and William E. Nix, A General Introduction to the Bible, Moody, Chicago, Revised and Expanded 1986, 366-67.
9 http://shakespeare.com/faq/, Dana Spradley, Publisher, 2002.
10 McDowell, Evidence that Demands a Verdict, vol. 1, 50-51.
11 Ravi K. Zacharias, Can Man Live Without God? Word Publishing, 1994, 162.

The purpose of the Bible is this:

In all matters dealing with God's salvation for man in Christ Jesus, the Bible is true and provides God's prescription for sinner man to come to God for redemption. This makes the Bible unique from all other books ever written, including the Quran.

Acts 4:10 let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ the Nazarene, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead--by this name this man stands here before you in good health.
11 "He is the STONE WHICH WAS REJECTED by you, THE BUILDERS, but WHICH BECAME THE CHIEF CORNER stone.
12 "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved."
John 14:6, "I (Jesus) am the Way (of life), the Truth (of life), and the Life (of life). No man comes to the Father (God) but by Me."
John 10:10
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